Question

Proof of the divided-difference mean value lemma

Original question: Lemma 1. Let fCk[a,b]f \in C^k[a,b] and x0,,xkx_0,\ldots,x_k be distinct points in [a,b][a,b]. The there exists a point ξ(a,b)\xi \in (a,b) such that f[x0,x1,,xk]=f(k)(ξ)/k!f[x_0,x_1,\ldots,x_k] = f^{(k)}(\xi)/k!.

Proof. Let Pk(x)P_k(x) denote the polynomial of degree <k< k interpolating ff at x0,,xkx_0,\ldots,x_k and define ek(x)=f(x)Pk(x)e_k(x) = f(x) - P_k(x). Observe first that ek(x)e_k(x) has at least k+1k+1 distinct zeroes at the points x0,,xkx_0,\ldots,x_k. Since ff and therefore eke_k is differentiable on (a,b)(a,b), we can use Rolle’s theorem to conclude that between each two adjacent zeroes of ek(x)e_k(x), there exists at least one zero of ek(x)e_k'(x). Hence ek(x)hasatleaste_k'(x) has at least kzeroesinzeroes in(a,b).Since. Since fandthereforeand thereforee_k(x)isisktimesdifferentiableintimes differentiable in(a,b),wecancontinuethisargumenttoconcludethat, we can continue this argument to conclude that e_k''(x)hasatleasthas at leastk-1zeroesinzeroes in(a,b),andfinallythat, and finally that e_k^{(k)}hasatleastonezeroinhas at least one zero in(a,b).Ifwedenotethatzerobythepoint. If we denote that zero by the point \xi$, then

0=ek(k)(ξ)=f(k)(ξ)Pk(k)(ξ).0 = e_k^{(k)}(\xi) = f^{(k)}(\xi) - P_k^{(k)}(\xi).

Now by formula (4.2),

Pk(x)=i=0kf[x0,,xi]j=0i1(xxj)=f[x0,,xk]xk+polynomial of degree <k.P_k(x) = \sum_{i=0}^k f[x_0,\ldots,x_i] \prod_{j=0}^{i-1}(x-x_j) = f[x_0,\ldots,x_k]x^k + \text{polynomial of degree } < k.

Hence Pk(k)(x)=f[x0,,xk]k!P_k^{(k)}(x) = f[x_0,\ldots,x_k]k! for all xx and so f[x0,,xk]=f(k)(ξ)/k!f[x_0,\ldots,x_k] = f^{(k)}(\xi)/k! for some ξ(a,b)\xi \in (a,b).

Expert Verified Solution

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Expert intro: This lemma is a standard bridge between interpolation theory and repeated applications of Rolle’s theorem.

Detailed walkthrough

What the lemma says

The statement connects a higher-order divided difference to a higher derivative at some interior point. In practical terms, it says that the divided difference of ff at k+1k+1 distinct points behaves like a scaled kkth derivative somewhere inside the interval.

Formally, if fCk[a,b]f\in C^k[a,b] and x0,,xkx_0,\ldots,x_k are distinct points in [a,b][a,b], then there exists ξ(a,b)\xi\in(a,b) such that

f[x0,x1,,xk]=f(k)(ξ)k!.f[x_0,x_1,\ldots,x_k]=\frac{f^{(k)}(\xi)}{k!}.

Interpolation polynomial and the error function

Let Pk(x)P_k(x) be the interpolating polynomial of degree <k<k satisfying

Pk(xi)=f(xi),i=0,1,,k.P_k(x_i)=f(x_i),\qquad i=0,1,\ldots,k.

Define the interpolation error

ek(x)=f(x)Pk(x).e_k(x)=f(x)-P_k(x).

Because PkP_k matches ff at each node x0,,xkx_0,\ldots,x_k, the error has at least k+1k+1 distinct zeros:

ek(x0)=ek(x1)==ek(xk)=0.e_k(x_0)=e_k(x_1)=\cdots=e_k(x_k)=0.

This is the key setup, since repeated zeros allow repeated use of Rolle’s theorem.

Repeated application of Rolle’s theorem

Since eke_k is differentiable on (a,b)(a,b), Rolle’s theorem implies that between each pair of adjacent zeros of eke_k there is at least one zero of eke_k'. With k+1k+1 zeros, this gives at least kk zeros of eke_k'. Applying the same argument to eke_k' gives at least k1k-1 zeros of eke_k'', and continuing in this way yields at least one zero of ek(k)e_k^{(k)}.

So there exists ξ(a,b)\xi\in(a,b) such that

ek(k)(ξ)=0.e_k^{(k)}(\xi)=0.

Since ek=fPke_k=f-P_k,

0=ek(k)(ξ)=f(k)(ξ)Pk(k)(ξ).0=e_k^{(k)}(\xi)=f^{(k)}(\xi)-P_k^{(k)}(\xi).

Therefore

f(k)(ξ)=Pk(k)(ξ).f^{(k)}(\xi)=P_k^{(k)}(\xi).

Why the derivative of PkP_k equals the divided difference term

A standard Newton form of the interpolating polynomial is

Pk(x)=i=0kf[x0,,xi]j=0i1(xxj).P_k(x)=\sum_{i=0}^k f[x_0,\ldots,x_i]\prod_{j=0}^{i-1}(x-x_j).

The highest-degree term comes from i=ki=k:

f[x0,,xk]xk+terms of degree <k.f[x_0,\ldots,x_k]x^k+\text{terms of degree }<k.

When you take the kkth derivative, every term of degree less than kk vanishes, and the leading term contributes

Pk(k)(x)=k!f[x0,,xk].P_k^{(k)}(x)=k!\,f[x_0,\ldots,x_k].

Substituting this into the earlier identity gives

f(k)(ξ)=k!f[x0,,xk],f^{(k)}(\xi)=k!\,f[x_0,\ldots,x_k],

which rearranges to the desired result.

Final conclusion

The proof works because interpolation creates an error function with many zeros, and Rolle’s theorem converts those zeros into a zero of the kkth derivative. The Newton form then identifies the kkth derivative of the interpolating polynomial with the divided difference coefficient.

That is the exact mechanism behind the lemma, and it is also why divided differences are so useful in error estimates for polynomial interpolation.

💡 Pitfall guide

A frequent mistake is to stop after applying Rolle’s theorem once and assume the result is already enough. The argument needs to be repeated kk times to reach ek(k)e_k^{(k)}. Another common issue is confusing the degree of the interpolating polynomial in the proof. Because the polynomial interpolates at k+1k+1 points, its degree is at most kk, so the kkth derivative is the first derivative order that isolates the leading divided-difference term. Skipping that observation makes the final step look mysterious.

🔄 Real-world variant

A useful variation is the case k=1k=1. Then the lemma reduces to the familiar mean value theorem in divided-difference form: for distinct x0,x1x_0,x_1, there exists ξ\xi such that

f[x0,x1]=f(ξ).f[x_0,x_1]=f'(\xi).

If you increase to k=2k=2, the statement becomes a second-order analogue involving the quadratic interpolant and f(ξ)/2f''(\xi)/2. These low-order cases help show that the lemma is a direct extension of standard mean value ideas.

🔍 Related terms

divided differences, Rolle's theorem, Newton interpolation

FAQ

How does Rolle's theorem help prove the divided-difference lemma?

The interpolation error has zeros at all interpolation nodes. Repeated use of Rolle's theorem produces a zero of the kth derivative inside the interval, which links the divided difference to a derivative value.

Why does the Newton form identify the highest divided difference coefficient?

In Newton form, the coefficient of the highest-degree term is the kth divided difference. Taking the kth derivative removes all lower-degree terms and leaves k! times that coefficient.

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