Question
Proving the space of linear maps is infinite-dimensional
Original question: Let and be a basis of . Let be an infinite sequence of linearly independent vectors in . By the Linear Map Lemma, there exists such that for .
14 Suppose is finite-dimensional with , and suppose is infinite-dimensional. Prove that is infinite-dimensional.
Expert Verified Solution
Expert intro: The proof uses an infinite linearly independent set in the codomain and the Linear Map Lemma to build infinitely many independent operators from a finite basis of the domain.
Detailed walkthrough
Core strategy
We want to prove that is infinite-dimensional when is finite-dimensional with and is infinite-dimensional. The key observation is that even though the domain is finite-dimensional, the codomain has enough room to create infinitely many distinct linear maps.
Choose a basis of , where . Because is infinite-dimensional, it contains an infinite linearly independent sequence .
Construct many linear maps
For each positive integer , define a linear map by setting
This is possible by the Linear Map Lemma: specifying the images of a basis determines a unique linear transformation.
Now consider a finite linear relation
Apply both sides to . We get
Since are linearly independent, every coefficient must be zero:
Therefore is an infinite linearly independent subset of .
Why this proves infinite dimension
A vector space is infinite-dimensional if it contains an infinite linearly independent set. We have just constructed such a set in . Hence
Common proof pattern
This is a standard operator-space argument: use a basis of the domain, pick infinitely many independent vectors in the codomain, and define maps that send one basis vector to each of those codomain vectors. The finite-dimensionality of does not restrict the number of different maps enough to make the operator space finite-dimensional when is infinite-dimensional.
So the conclusion follows directly from the existence of the infinite independent family .
π‘ Pitfall guide
A frequent mistake is trying to argue that because has dimension , the space of all linear maps from to should have dimension at most . That is false unless is also finite-dimensional. Another error is defining only one map and assuming that a single nonzero operator implies infinite dimension. To prove infinite-dimensionality, you must produce infinitely many linearly independent operators, not just infinitely many different operators. The Linear Map Lemma is what makes the construction rigorous.
π Real-world variant
If were the zero space, then would actually be the zero space, which is finite-dimensional. So the condition matters. If instead both and were finite-dimensional, then , which is finite. The conclusion changes only because is infinite-dimensional here. If is infinite-dimensional but you try to use only one basis vector of , the proof still works as long as , because you only need one nonzero vector in the domain to detect linear independence among the maps.
π Related terms
Linear Map Lemma, linearly independent set, operator space dimension
FAQ
Why does an infinite-dimensional codomain make the operator space infinite-dimensional?
Because an infinite-dimensional codomain contains infinitely many linearly independent vectors, and each one can be used to define a distinct linear map from a nonzero basis vector of V. Those maps form an infinite linearly independent set.
How does the Linear Map Lemma help prove the result?
The Linear Map Lemma guarantees that once the images of a basis of V are chosen, there is a unique linear map realizing them. That allows us to construct infinitely many independent operators in L(V,W).