Question

Proving the space of linear maps is infinite-dimensional

Original question: Let dim⁑V=m\dim V = m and v1,…,vmv_1, \ldots, v_m be a basis of VV. Let w1,w2,w3,…w_1, w_2, w_3, \ldots be an infinite sequence of linearly independent vectors in WW. By the Linear Map Lemma, there exists T1∈L(V,W)T_1 \in \mathcal{L}(V,W) such that T1vi=wiT_1 v_i = w_i for i∈1,…,mi \in {1, \ldots, m}.

14 Suppose VV is finite-dimensional with dim⁑V>0\dim V > 0, and suppose WW is infinite-dimensional. Prove that L(V,W)\mathcal{L}(V,W) is infinite-dimensional.

Expert Verified Solution

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Expert intro: The proof uses an infinite linearly independent set in the codomain and the Linear Map Lemma to build infinitely many independent operators from a finite basis of the domain.

Detailed walkthrough

Core strategy

We want to prove that L(V,W)\mathcal{L}(V,W) is infinite-dimensional when VV is finite-dimensional with dim⁑V>0\dim V>0 and WW is infinite-dimensional. The key observation is that even though the domain is finite-dimensional, the codomain has enough room to create infinitely many distinct linear maps.

Choose a basis v1,…,vmv_1,\dots,v_m of VV, where m=dim⁑Vβ‰₯1m=\dim V\ge 1. Because WW is infinite-dimensional, it contains an infinite linearly independent sequence w1,w2,w3,…w_1,w_2,w_3,\dots.

Construct many linear maps

For each positive integer nn, define a linear map Tn∈L(V,W)T_n\in\mathcal{L}(V,W) by setting

Tn(v1)=wn,Tn(vi)=0Β forΒ i=2,…,m.T_n(v_1)=w_n, \qquad T_n(v_i)=0 \text{ for } i=2,\dots,m.

This is possible by the Linear Map Lemma: specifying the images of a basis determines a unique linear transformation.

Now consider a finite linear relation

a1T1+a2T2+β‹―+akTk=0.a_1T_1+a_2T_2+\cdots+a_kT_k=0.

Apply both sides to v1v_1. We get

a1w1+a2w2+β‹―+akwk=0.a_1w_1+a_2w_2+\cdots+a_kw_k=0.

Since w1,w2,…,wkw_1,w_2,\dots,w_k are linearly independent, every coefficient must be zero:

a1=a2=β‹―=ak=0.a_1=a_2=\cdots=a_k=0.

Therefore {T1,T2,T3,… }\{T_1,T_2,T_3,\dots\} is an infinite linearly independent subset of L(V,W)\mathcal{L}(V,W).

Why this proves infinite dimension

A vector space is infinite-dimensional if it contains an infinite linearly independent set. We have just constructed such a set in L(V,W)\mathcal{L}(V,W). Hence

L(V,W)Β isΒ infinite-dimensional.\mathcal{L}(V,W) \text{ is infinite-dimensional.}

Common proof pattern

This is a standard operator-space argument: use a basis of the domain, pick infinitely many independent vectors in the codomain, and define maps that send one basis vector to each of those codomain vectors. The finite-dimensionality of VV does not restrict the number of different maps enough to make the operator space finite-dimensional when WW is infinite-dimensional.

So the conclusion follows directly from the existence of the infinite independent family {Tn}\{T_n\}.

πŸ’‘ Pitfall guide

A frequent mistake is trying to argue that because VV has dimension mm, the space of all linear maps from VV to WW should have dimension at most mm. That is false unless WW is also finite-dimensional. Another error is defining only one map T1T_1 and assuming that a single nonzero operator implies infinite dimension. To prove infinite-dimensionality, you must produce infinitely many linearly independent operators, not just infinitely many different operators. The Linear Map Lemma is what makes the construction rigorous.

πŸ”„ Real-world variant

If VV were the zero space, then L(V,W)\mathcal{L}(V,W) would actually be the zero space, which is finite-dimensional. So the condition dim⁑V>0\dim V>0 matters. If instead both VV and WW were finite-dimensional, then dim⁑L(V,W)=(dim⁑V)(dim⁑W)\dim\mathcal{L}(V,W)= (\dim V)(\dim W), which is finite. The conclusion changes only because WW is infinite-dimensional here. If WW is infinite-dimensional but you try to use only one basis vector of VV, the proof still works as long as Vβ‰ {0}V\neq\{0\}, because you only need one nonzero vector in the domain to detect linear independence among the maps.

πŸ” Related terms

Linear Map Lemma, linearly independent set, operator space dimension

FAQ

Why does an infinite-dimensional codomain make the operator space infinite-dimensional?

Because an infinite-dimensional codomain contains infinitely many linearly independent vectors, and each one can be used to define a distinct linear map from a nonzero basis vector of V. Those maps form an infinite linearly independent set.

How does the Linear Map Lemma help prove the result?

The Linear Map Lemma guarantees that once the images of a basis of V are chosen, there is a unique linear map realizing them. That allows us to construct infinitely many independent operators in L(V,W).

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