The philosopher Ludwig Wittgenstein argued that there could be no purely "private language" — a language whose terms refer only to the speaker's inner sensations and which is in principle inaccessible to others. To use a term consistently, Wittgenstein suggested, requires criteria for correct application that go beyond the speaker's own present impression of correctness; otherwise the speaker has no way to distinguish actually following the rule from merely seeming to follow it.
Which conclusion most logically follows from the passage?
- A
Wittgenstein endorses purely private languages as the foundation of meaning
- B
Inner sensations cannot influence language use in any way
- Ccheck_circle
Wittgenstein takes the meaning of terms to depend on conditions extending beyond the speaker's introspective reports
- D
Speakers can always distinguish actually following a rule from seeming to do so
Explanation
Requiring criteria beyond present impression for consistent use supports B. A overstates exclusion of inner states; C and D contradict the argument.