Question

Rewriting a trigonometric limit using identities

Original question: If f(x)=sin⁑xβˆ’1cos⁑2xf(x)=\frac{\sin x-1}{\cos^2 x}, then lim⁑xβ†’Ο€2f(x)\lim_{x\to \frac{\pi}{2}} f(x) is equivalent to which of the following?

A. lim⁑xβ†’Ο€2βˆ’11+sin⁑x\lim_{x\to \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{-1}{1+\sin x}

B. lim⁑xβ†’Ο€2sin⁑xβˆ’11+sin⁑2x\lim_{x\to \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\sin x-1}{1+\sin^2 x}

C. lim⁑xβ†’Ο€2sec⁑x\lim_{x\to \frac{\pi}{2}} \sec x

D. lim⁑xβ†’Ο€2(tan⁑xβˆ’sec⁑x)\lim_{x\to \frac{\pi}{2}} (\tan x-\sec x)

Expert Verified Solution

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Expert intro: This limit problem is about algebraic rewriting with trig identities. The goal is to transform the function into an equivalent expression that is easier to evaluate or compare.

Detailed walkthrough

Key idea: simplify before taking the limit

We start with

\

\$$ and want an equivalent limit form as \$x\to \frac{\pi}{2}\$. The most useful move is to rewrite the denominator using the identity \$\cos^2 x = 1-\sin^2 x\$. ## Step 1: factor the denominator Using the difference of squares, \ $$1-\sin^2 x = (1-\sin x)(1+\sin x) \$$ So \ $$\frac{\sin x-1}{\cos^2 x} = \frac{\sin x-1}{(1-\sin x)(1+\sin x)} \$$ Since \$\sin x-1 = -(1-\sin x)\$, this becomes \ $$\frac{-(1-\sin x)}{(1-\sin x)(1+\sin x)} = \frac{-1}{1+\sin x} \$$ ## Step 2: match the answer choice Therefore, \ $$\lim_{x\to \frac{\pi}{2}} f(x) \$$ is equivalent to \ $$\lim_{x\to \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{-1}{1+\sin x} \$$ which is choice A. ## Why the other forms are not equivalent - \$\sec x\$ is not algebraically equal to the original expression. - \$\tan x-\sec x\$ can be related to some trig simplifications, but it does not match this expression after the standard identity substitution. - The denominator in choice B is not the correct factorization of \$\cos^2 x\$. ## Final answer \ $$\boxed{\text{A}}\$$ ### πŸ’‘ Pitfall guide A frequent mistake is trying to plug in \$x=\frac{\pi}{2}\$ too early. That gives \$0/0\$, which is indeterminate, so the expression must first be rewritten algebraically. Another common error is mixing up \$1-\sin^2 x\$ with \$1+\sin^2 x\$; only the first one factors as a difference of squares. When a limit asks for an equivalent expression, focus on identities that remove the indeterminate form before evaluating anything. ### πŸ”„ Real-world variant If the problem instead used \$f(x)=\frac{1-\sin x}{\cos^2 x}\$, then the same identity would simplify it to \$\frac{1}{1+\sin x}\$. If the limit were taken as \$x\to 0\$, you would still simplify first, but the final evaluation would be different because \$\sin 0 = 0\$ and \$\cos 0 = 1\$. The core method stays the same: rewrite \$\cos^2 x\$ using \$1-\sin^2 x\$ and factor carefully. ### πŸ” Related terms trigonometric identity, difference of squares, equivalent limit form

FAQ

How do you rewrite a trigonometric limit to remove an indeterminate form?

Use trig identities, such as cos^2 x = 1 - sin^2 x, and factor the resulting expression. This often cancels the troublesome factor and produces an equivalent limit form.

Why should you simplify a trigonometric limit before substituting the limit value?

Direct substitution can produce 0/0, which is indeterminate. Simplifying first reveals an equivalent expression that may be evaluated more easily or matched to a correct answer choice.

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