The Code Noir, issued by Louis XIV in 1685, governed the treatment of enslaved people in French colonies. Historians have noted that the code prohibited certain practices — separating young children from their mothers in sales, for example — yet enforcement records show such separations occurring routinely. Officials charged with enforcement frequently held property interests aligned with the practices the code formally restricted.
Which conclusion most logically follows from the passage?
- A
The Code Noir was repealed shortly after its issuance
- B
French colonial law contained no provisions regarding enslaved people
- Ccheck_circle
Formal legal prohibitions can fail to take effect when enforcement officials have interests in the prohibited practices
- D
The Code Noir was strictly enforced throughout the French colonies
Explanation
Routine occurrence of prohibited practices alongside conflicted enforcement supports B. A, C, D contradict the passage.