Mendelian Genetics

AP Biology· difficulty 3/5

Trait passes vertically. Both sexes affected. No affected child from two unaffected.

Why is autosomal dominant a more likely explanation than autosomal recessive in this pedigree?

  • A

    Affected children always have at least one affected parent, and the trait does not skip generations.

    check_circle
  • B

    Two unaffected parents have an affected child.

  • C

    The trait skips multiple generations.

  • D

    All affected individuals are male.

Explanation

Autosomal dominant traits show vertical transmission with no generational skipping; an affected child must have at least one affected parent (assuming complete penetrance and no de novo mutations).

Want 10 more like this — adaptive to your weak spots?

Related questions